These are not the droids you're looking for.

Today I saw a comment on 1 Timothy 3:2 "Therefore an overseer must be above reproach, the husband of one wife ..." (ESV)

He wrote: "In the Greek it literaly [sic] means 'one woman man.'"

I've heard this before, but is it true?

Well, no, not really, especially not in the way it's implied. The implication is that "man" & "woman" are more "literal" translations than "husband" & "wife."

But, "woman" & "wife" and "man" & "husband" are the same Greek words* (gynē & anēr respectively). So, the context would have to guide the use of woman or wife and man or husband.

Literally, it's anēr (man/husband) of one gynē (woman/wife), but the context in this instance would pretty soundly give you "husband" of one "wife."

I think the "man of one woman" bit is an unfounded way to try to say that a man really needs to be into his woman. I agree with that sentiment, but one cannot appeal to the original language to get there as a superior translation.

*My apologies for using the sloogey transliterated bit, but my blog doesn't seem to like the Greek font. But, if yours can read it, the Greek words are γυνή & ἀνήρ for woman/wife & man/husband respectively.